Answer to Question #350535 in Real Analysis for Andy

Question

Let $\mu$ be a finite measure defined on the Borel $\sigma$-field of R. Prove that

there exists a unique closed set F such that $\mu$(F)= $\mu$(R) and such that if

F₁ is any closed set satisfying $\mu$(F₁) = $\mu$(R),then F$\subset$ F₁

Answer 1

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