Show that π¦ = ln (π₯) is a solution of π₯π¦β²β² + π¦β² = 0Β
"xy" + y' = 0\\\\\n\nso: y = ln(x) y' = \\frac{1}{x y"} = \\frac{-1}{x^2}"
Plug this into the differential equation:
This shows that there is a solution, but not necessarily on what interval.
Now to show whic interval this is valid in, we need to use
the existence and uniqueness theorem.
Given a differential equation: "y" + p(x)y' = q(x) y(x0) = y_0"
A unique solution is guaranteed where p(x)0 and q(x) are continuous.
Put this into proper form by dividing through by x to get:
Thus:
These functions are both continuous on :
Comments
Leave a comment