I have doubts in the question, so I have given two answers.
If the given function is
"f(x)=\\begin{cases}\n\\frac{xy}{2x+2y}&\\text{if} (x,y)\\neq(0,0) \\\\\n0 & \\text{if} (x,y)=(0,0)\n\\end{cases}"
Consider the sequence "x_n=(\\frac{1}{n},\\frac{-1}{n})" in "\\R^2" .
Then "\\text{lim}_{n\\to \\infin}x_n=(0,0)." But "f(x_n)=\\frac{( \\frac{1}{n})( \\frac{-1}{n} )}{\\frac{2}{n}-\\frac{2}{n}}"
"\\implies f(x_n)=\\frac{-1}{0}" .
which does not exist.
Hence "f(x,y)" is not continuous at (0,0).
If the function is "f(x)=\\begin{cases}\n\\frac{xy}{x^2+y^2} & \\text{if} (x,y)\\neq(0,0) \\\\\n0 & \\text{if} (x,y)=(0,0)\n\\end{cases}"
Consider the sequence "x_n=(\\frac{1}{n},\\frac{1}{n}) \\ \\text{in} \\ \\R^2."
Then "\\text{lim}_{x\\to \\infin} x_n=(0,0)." But "f(x_n)=\\frac{ \\frac{1}{n^2}}{\\frac{2}{n^2}}=\\frac{1}{2}" ,which is a constant function and converge to "\\frac{1}{2}" .
"\\therefore f(x_n)\\nrightarrow f(0)" as "n\\rightarrow \\infin" .
Hence "f(x,y)" is not continuos at (0,0).
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