Suppose π is odd and differentiable everywhere. Prove that for every positive
number π, there exists a number π in (βπ, π) such that πβ²(π) = π(π)/π.
ANSWER.
The function "f" is differentiable everywhere, hence "f" is continuous everywhere.Let "b>0" , so "f" is differentiable on a closed interval "[-b,b]" ( hence "f" is continuous on "[-b,b]" ). Then , by Lagrange's Mean Value Theorem , there exists a point "c\\in(-b,b)" , such that
"f(b)-f(-b)=f'(c)\\cdot[b-(-b)]=2b\\cdot f'(c)" . (1)
Since "f" is odd, so "f(-b)=-f(b)" or "f(b)-f(-b)=2f(b)." From (1) we get
"2f(b)=2b\\cdot f'(c)."
Therefore, for every "b>0" there exists "c\\in(-b,b)" , such that
"f'(c)=\\frac{f(b)}{b}" .
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